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What do you think? Give us your opinion. Anonymous comments allowed.
#1 - mraye (06/15/2013) [-]
Mr Jackson was the best English teacher I ever had.
Mr Jackson was the best English teacher I ever had.
User avatar #23 to #1 - whycanticaps (06/16/2013) [-]
Merr Jackson?
#27 to #23 - Merr (06/17/2013) [-]
User avatar #2 to #1 - godtherapist (06/15/2013) [-]
He ended a sentence with a preposition, not the best English speaker himself.
#16 to #2 - thefifthgiraki (06/16/2013) [-]
Yeah, except no, because:
1) "It" is a pronoun.
2) That's just a pseudo-linguistical "rule" made up by descriptivist latinophiles in the 19th. century without any actual foundation in English grammar from any period.
#3 to #1 - ieatyououtaldaylon (06/15/2013) [-]
Well he was Spiderman's teacher
User avatar #4 to #1 - theugandanhero (06/15/2013) [-]
#5 to #4 - mraye (06/15/2013) [-]
Comment Picture
#6 - WutzATroll (06/16/2013) [-]
#11 to #6 - kiboz (06/16/2013) [-]
Both can be used, "were" is just more common.
#13 to #11 - Rascal (06/16/2013) [-]
No, both can't be used.

For whatever reason, the subjunctive tense isn't taught in English (unless you've taken a foreign language, you probably don't even know what it is). In case you don't know, subjunctive is a tense used for a counter-factual statement, a wishful statement, and a few other more obscure places.

Why isn't subjunctive taught? Personally, I believe the two main reasons are that a) many of the conjugations are unchanged, so we couldn't even tell if it's in subjunctive, and b) it's somewhat archaic.

The word "if" causes subjunctive, so you have to use the first person, imperfect subjunctive conjugation for the infinitive verb "to be", which is "were".

Sure, you can use either, but you're only going to be grammatically correct if you use the correct conjugation.
#17 to #13 - kiboz (06/16/2013) [-]
Well, I just got corrected by an anon. Shame on me. I'm not a native speaker tho, so I guess it's fine I didn't know that.
#20 to #6 - schrodngrscat (06/16/2013) [-]
Like he implied, he isn't an English teacher. His grammar doesn't have to be perfect.
#24 - ThatsSoFunnyHeHe (06/16/2013) [-]
User avatar #25 to #24 - somefunnyshitihope (06/16/2013) [-]
1: People sound like me, I already have 50 people copying my rap style.

2: I don't concern myself with rappers I don't know, they will never get me to feature on their music because they copy my style of rap. They've been doing this since 2011
User avatar #10 - jbails (06/16/2013) [-]
And you could give them ones that are close to the character limit so they'd have to re-write certain words while still keeping the same meaning.
#18 - xxxdemonxxx (06/16/2013) [-]
Spelt isn't the past tense of spell.
User avatar #7 - gijigsaw (06/16/2013) [-]
*spelled. Spelt isn't a word.
User avatar #8 to #7 - vicsix (06/16/2013) [-]
It is, just not considered correct in America.
#19 to #8 - schrodngrscat (06/16/2013) [-]
Actually a lot of Americans use it as well.
#15 to #8 - Rascal (06/16/2013) [-]
For your information, Dinkel Wheat isn't correct in America because Americans say pizza is a vegetable, and he doesn't like that, Mr. Rudie Rude.
User avatar #9 to #8 - barenoizedub (06/16/2013) [-]
They are both correct to use technically, it's whatever you prefer
#26 - Rascal (06/16/2013) [-]
If I was an English teacher I would make all the hot girls bend over the table and get raped, oh wait... is this the game were playing.
User avatar #22 - aazz (06/16/2013) [-]
if i were a english teacher i could has grammer
User avatar #21 - dubslao (06/16/2013) [-]
if I was an English teacher
I would assign everyone lab partners.
#12 - Rascal (06/16/2013) [-]
#14 to #12 - Rascal (06/16/2013) [-]
If you're going to correct someone's grammar, at least be correct.

"Celebrity's" indicates that there is only one celebrity, which is obviously not that case; OP is talking about a ton of celebrities. To show possession, one can either write "celebrities'" or "celebrities's" (the latter looks silly though).
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